Chapter 5: Problem 167
Explain why the sum of the MPC and the MPS for any given change in disposable income must always be equal to 1 .
Chapter 5: Problem 167
Explain why the sum of the MPC and the MPS for any given change in disposable income must always be equal to 1 .
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Get started for free$$\begin{array}{cc} \underline{\text { Disposable income after taxes }} & {\underline{\text { Net Savings }}}{\$ 8,000} & 100 \\ \$ 9,000 & 250 \end{array}$$ What is the marginal propensity to consume in the range $$\$ 8,000-\$ 9,000$$ for the family given in the figure?
Contrast the Keynesian, or modern, economic theory of saving and investment with the classical economic view.
What is the geometric meaning of the marginal propensity to consume?
During 1979, Mr. Anderson expected to earn $$\$ 20,000.$$ From this income he had planned to save $$\$ 2,000.$$ However, during 1979, Mr. Anderson got a raise which boosted his income to $$\$ 23,000$$. If Mr. Anderson ended up saving a total of $$\$ 3,000$$ out of his $$\$ 23,000$$ income, what was his marginal propensity to consume (MPC)? (It may be assumed that if he had not received his raise, Mr. Anderson would have actually saved the $$\$ 2,000$$ that he had planned to save.)
Keynesian economists claim that investment is the most volatile component of private spending. If this is so, why is the investment function, as shown, drawn as a straight line, rather than as an erratic curve?
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