Chapter 26: Problem 1
When Congress established the Federal Reserve in 1913 , what was its main responsibility? When did Congress broaden the Fed's responsibilities?
Chapter 26: Problem 1
When Congress established the Federal Reserve in 1913 , what was its main responsibility? When did Congress broaden the Fed's responsibilities?
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Get started for freeExplain whether you agree with this argument: If the Fed actually ever carried out a contractionary monetary policy, the price level would fall. Because the price level has not fallen in the United States over an entire year since the 1930s, we can conclude that the Fed has not carried out a contractionary policy since the \(1930 \mathrm{~s}\)
A student says the following: "I understand why the Fed uses expansionary policy, but I don't understand why it would ever use contractionary policy. Why would the government ever want the economy to contract?" Briefly answer the student's question.
A column in the Wall Street journal referred to policy actions aimed at "fulfilling both sides of the Fed's dual mandate." a. Who gave the Fed a dual mandate? b. Does the Fed's dual mandate require it to attain a zero percent unemployment rate? Briefly explain. c. Does the Fed's dual mandate require it to attain a zero percent inflation rate? Briefly explain.
What are the key differences between how we illustrate a contractionary monetary policy in the basic aggregate demand and aggregate supply model and in the dynamic aggregate demand and aggregate supply model?
Recall that securitization is the process of turning a loan, such as a mortgage, into a bond that can be bought and sold in secondary markets. An article in the Economist noted: That securitization caused more subprime mortgages to be written is not in doubt. By offering access to a much deeper pool of capital, securitization helped to bring down the cost of mortgages and made home-ownership more affordable for borrowers with poor credit histories. What is a "subprime mortgage"? What is a "deeper pool of capital"? Why would securitization give mortgage borrowers access to a deeper pool of capital? Would a subprime borrower be likely to pay a higher or lower interest rate than a borrower with a better credit history? Under what circumstances might a lender prefer to loan money to a borrower with a poor credit history rather than to a borrower with a good credit history? Briefly explain.
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