Suppose that consumer spending initially rises by \(5 billion for every 1 percent rise in household wealth and that investment spending initially rises by \)20 billion for every 1 percentage point fall in the real interest rate. Also, assume that the economy’s multiplier is 4. If household wealth falls by 5 percent because of declining house values, and the real interest rate falls by 2 percentage points, in what direction and by how much will the aggregate demand curve initially shift at each price level? In what direction and by how much will it eventually shift?

Short Answer

Expert verified

The AD curve will initially move to the right by $15 billion.

The AD curve will eventually move by $60 billion to the right.

Step by step solution

01

Initial change in the AD curve

The household spending (consumption expenditure) changes by $5 billion for every 1% change in the household wealth.Thus, a fall in the consumption wealth by 5% will reduce the consumption by $25 billion (= $5 billion × 5).

On the other hand, a fall in interest rate by 1% increases the investment by $20 billion.Thus, a 2% fall in the interest rate will increase the investment by $40 billion (= $20 billion × 2).

Thus, the net effect of changes in consumption expenditure and investment in the aggregate demand is as follows:

𝛥AD =𝛥Investment –𝛥Consumption

𝛥AD = $ (40 – 25) billion

𝛥AD = $15 billion

Thus, the aggregate demand curve will initially shift rightward by $15 billion.

02

Induced change in the AD curve

The multiplier value, as given in the question, is 4. Therefore, an initial increase of $15 billion in aggregate expenditure will eventually increase the aggregate demand by four times.

𝛥AD = k ×𝛥Aggregate Expenditure

𝛥AD = 4 × $15 billion

𝛥AD = $60 billion

Therefore, the aggregate demand will eventually increase by $60 billion, and the AD curve will further shift rightward by $60 billion.

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Most popular questions from this chapter

What shifts the aggregate demand curve?

What are examples of aggregate demand?

Assume that (a) the price level is flexible upward but not downward and (b) the economy is currently operating at its full-employment output. Other things equal, how will each of the following affect the equilibrium price level and equilibrium level of real output in the short run?

  1. An increase in aggregate demand.

  2. A decrease in aggregate supply, with no change in aggregate demand.

  3. Equal increases in aggregate demand and aggregate supply.

  4. A decrease in aggregate demand.

  5. An increase in aggregate demand that exceeds an increase in aggregate supply.

Why does a reduction in aggregate demand in the actual economy reduce real output, rather than the price level? Why might a full-strength multiplier apply to a decrease in aggregate demand?

Suppose that the table presented below shows an economy’s relationship between real output and the inputs needed to produce that output:

Input QuantityReal GDP
150.0\(400
112.5300
75.0200
  1. What is productivity in this economy?

  2. What is the per-unit cost of production if the price of each input unit is \)2?

  3. Assume that the input price increases from \(2 to \)3 with no accompanying change in productivity. What is the new per-unit cost of production? In what direction would the $1 increase in input price push the economy’s aggregate supply curve? What effect would this shift of aggregate supply have on the price level and the level of real output?

  4. Suppose that the increase in input price does not occur but, instead, that productivity increases by 100 percent. What would be the new per-unit cost of production? What effect would this change in per-unit production cost have on the economy’s aggregate supply curve? What effect would this shift of aggregate supply have on the price level and the level of real output?

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