Use an AD-AS graph to demonstrate and explain the price-level and real-output outcome of an anticipated decline in aggregate demand, as viewed by RET economists. (Assume that the economy initially is operating at its full-employment level of output.) Then demonstrate and explain on the same graph the outcome as viewed by mainstream economists.

Short Answer

Expert verified

The graph is given below:

In the view of the RET economists, the price level falls from P to P’, and the output remains at full employment when the aggregate demand declines.

This same outcome can be generated by using an expansionary monetary, in the view of mainstream economists.

Step by step solution

01

View of RET economists on decreased AD

For an anticipated decline in aggregate demand to AD’ from AD, the firms are aware completely of the price fall from P to P’ and anticipate that nominal wages will decline by the same percentage amount as the declining price level, leaving profits unchanged. So, the producers increase the supply, and the economy moves directly from point a to b. Deflation occurs in the economy, but it produces at the full employment level.

02

View of mainstream economists on decreased AD

The mainstream economists suggest taking the help of the monetary or fiscal policy when the AD falls to restore the economy to the full employment level. So, in the above figure, the mainstream economists will advocate an expansionary monetary policy that lowers the interest rate and encourages producers to increase AS to AS’. In this process, the economy reaches from point a to b. In the absence of this measure, the economy will stay where the AD’ intersects AS.

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Most popular questions from this chapter

An economy is producing at full employment when AD unexpectedly shifts to the left. A new classical economist would assume that as the economy adjusts back to producing at full employment, the price level will ________.

a. increase

b. decrease

c. stay the same

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According to mainstream economists, what is the usual cause of macroeconomic instability? What role does the spending-income multiplier play in creating instability? How might adverse aggregate supply factors cause instability, according to mainstream economists?

Assume the following information for a hypothetical economy in year 1: money supply = $400 billion; long-term annual growth of potential GDP = 3 percent; velocity = 4. Assume that the banking system initially has no excess reserves and that the reserve requirement is 10 percent. Also suppose that velocity is constant and that the economy initially is operating at its full-employment real output.

  1. What is the level of nominal GDP in year 1?

  2. Suppose the Fed adheres to a monetary rule through open-market operations. What amount of U.S. securities will it have to sell to, or buy from, banks or the public between years 1 and 2 to meet its monetary rule?

Suppose that the money supply is \(1 trillion and money velocity is 4. Then the equation of exchange would predict nominal GDP to be:

a. \)1 trillion.

b. \(4 trillion.

c. \)5 trillion.

d. $8 trillion

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