For the CRRA utility function (Equation 7.42), we showed that the degree of
risk aversion is measured by 1 \(-R\). In Chapter 3 we showed that the
elasticity of substitution for the same function is given by \(1 /(1-R)\). Hence
the measures are reciprocals of each other. Using this result, discuss the
following questions.
a. Why is risk aversion related to an individual's willingness to substitute
wealth between states of the world? What phenomenon is being captured by both
concepts?
b. How would you interpret the polar cases \(R=1\) and \(R=-\infty\) in both the
risk-aversion and substitution frameworks?
c. A rise in the price of contingent claims in "bad" times
\(\left(p_{b}\right)\) will induce substitution and income effects into the
demands for \(W_{g}\) and \(W_{b^{*}}\) If the individual has a fixed budget to
devote to these two goods, how will choices among them be affected? Why might
\(W_{g}\) rise or fall depending on the degree of risk aversion exhibited by the
individual?
d. Suppose that empirical data suggest an individual requires an average
return of 0.5 percent before being tempted to invest in an investment that has
a \(50-50\) chance of gaining or losing 5 percent. That is, this person gets the
same utility from \(W_{0}\) as from an even bet on \(1.055 \mathrm{W}_{0}\) and
\(0.955 \mathrm{W}_{0}\)
(1) What value of \(R\) is consistent with this behavior?
(2) How much average return would this person require to accept a \(50-50\)
chance of gaining or losing 10 percent?
Note: This part requires solving nonlinear equations, so approximate solutions
will suffice. The comparison of the riskreward trade-off illustrates what is
called the equity premium puzzle in that risky investments seem actually to
earn much more than is consistent with the degree of risk aversion suggested
by other data. See N. R. Kocherlakota, "The Equity Premium: It's Still a
Puzzle," Journal of Economic Literature (March 1996 ): \(42-71\).