Chapter 19: Q 23. (page 462)
Does intra-industry trade contradict the theory of
comparative advantage?
Short Answer
No, it doesn't contradict.
Chapter 19: Q 23. (page 462)
Does intra-industry trade contradict the theory of
comparative advantage?
No, it doesn't contradict.
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Get started for freeLook at Table 19.9. Is there a range of trades for
which there will be no gains?
In France it takes one worker to produce one sweater, and one worker to produce one bottle of wine. In Tunisia it takes two workers to produce one sweater, and three workers to produce one bottle of wine. Who has the absolute advantage in production of sweaters? Who has the absolute advantage in the production of wine? How can you tell?
In Germany it takes three workers to make one television and four workers to make one video camera. In Poland it takes six workers to make one television and 12 workers to make one video camera.
Who has the absolute advantage in the production of televisions? Who has the absolute advantage in the production of video cameras? How can you tell?
Calculate the opportunity cost of producing one additional television set in Germany and in Poland. (Your calculation may involve fractions, which is fine.) Which country has a comparative advantage in the production of televisions?
Calculate the opportunity cost of producing one video camera in Germany and in Poland. Which country has a comparative advantage in the production of video cameras?
In this example, is absolute advantage the same as comparative advantage, or not?
In what product should Germany specialize? In what product should Poland specialize?
Why might intra-industry trade seem surprising
from the point of view of comparative advantage?
Why might a low-income country put up barriers
to trade, such as tariffs on imports?
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