Show that if P(Ai)=1for alli1, thenPi=1Ai=1.

Short Answer

Expert verified

Use the Bonferroni's inequality

Generalize to infinity by forming a decreasing sequence of events.

Step by step solution

01

Given Information.

Let A1,A2,be a sequence of events such that for everyPAi=1, provePk=1Ak=1.

02

Explanation.

This is Bonferroni's inequality,Pk=1nAkk=1nPAk-(n-1)

Directly from this inequality, it follows that for any nevents with probabilityrole="math" localid="1649443762370" 1,Pk=1nAk1.

From Axioms probability of the outcome, space is1, and the probability of every event i.e. subset is less or equal to1.

Pk=1nAk=1

Prove this for.

We see that:

A1A1A2k=1nAk

In some ordering of theA1,A2

Otherwise, someAkis a subset of the intersection of all the sets, and therefore the probability of the intersection is greater thanPAk=1.

So 1nAknis a descending sequence of events, andk=1Ak=limnk=1nAk.

Proposition 6.l.for this sequence means

Pk=1Ak=limnPk=1nAk=1

Since the right-hand side holds limes of a constant sequence with value1, according to the equation (1)above.

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