In Laplace's rule of succession (Example 5e), suppose that the firstn flips resulted in rheads andn-r tails. Show that the probability that then+1 flip turns up heads is r+1n+2. To do so, you will have to prove and use the identity

01yn(1y)mdy=n!m!(n+m+1)!

Hint: To prove the identity, letC(n,m)=01yn(1y)mdy .
Integrating by parts yields

C(n,m)=mn+1C(n+1,m1)

Starting withC(n,0)=1/(n+1) , prove the identity by induction on .

Short Answer

Expert verified

Obtaining recursion for Cn,m using partial integration, and then the explicit formula.

Step by step solution

01

Step: Probability wanted equation:

By choosig coin condition,

PHFn,m=i=0kPHCiFn,mPCiFn,m

Probability head of coin,

PHCiFn,m=PHCi=ikPCiFn,m=n+mnikn1ikmj=0kn+mnjkn1jkmPHFn,m=i=0kn+mnikn+11ikmj=0kn+mnjkn1jkmPHFn,m=i=0kikn+11ikmj=0kjkn1jkm

By integral approximation of expression,

1ki=0kikn1ikm01yn(1y)mdy=:Cn,m

The wanted probability approximation as,

PHFn,mCn+1,mCn,m.

02

Step: 2 Partial integration:

By using partial integration,

Cn,m=01yn(1y)mdy=yn+1=u(y)u(y)=(n+1)yn(1y)mv(y)v(y)=m(1y)m1Cn,m=011n+1u(y)v(y)dyCn,m=1n+1(u(y)v(y))0101u(y)v(y)dyCn,m=1n+1001yn+1×(m)(1y)m1dyCn,m=mn+101yn+1(1y)m1dyCn,m=mn+1Cn+1,m1.

03

Step: 3 Proving equation:

The wanted recursion is

Cn,m=mn+1Cn+1,m1

and the integration as

Cn,0=01yndy=1n+1

By repeating recursion as mtimes until second index reaches at 0becomes as

Cn,m=mn+1×m1n+2×m2n+3××1n+1+m1×Cn+m,0Cn,m=m!(n+m)!n!×1n+m+1Cn,m=n!m!(n+m+1)!.

The wanted probability as

PHFn,mCn+1,mCn,m=(n+1)!m!(n+m+2)!n!m!(n+m+1)!PHFn,mCn+1,mCn,m=n+1n+m+2.

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