The probability of being dealt a full house in a hand of poker is approximately .0014. Find an approximation for the probability that in 1000 hands of poker, you will be dealt at least 2 full houses.

Short Answer

Expert verified

An approximation for the probability that in 1000hands of poker, we will be dealt at least 2full houses is 0.408.

Step by step solution

01

Given information

We are given that we have n=1000autonomous Hands of poker, wherein every one of them we have p=0.0014probability to get a Whole House.

02

Calculation

So on intermediate, we will hold λ=np=1.4Full Houses in this session. Hence, we can use the Poisson approximation to get the demand.

So, let Y~Pois(λ).

We have that

P(Y2)=1-P(Y=0)-P(Y=1)=1-e-λ-λe-λ0.408

03

Final answer

So there is approximately 0.408 probability to get at least two full houses in 1000 hands.

Unlock Step-by-Step Solutions & Ace Your Exams!

  • Full Textbook Solutions

    Get detailed explanations and key concepts

  • Unlimited Al creation

    Al flashcards, explanations, exams and more...

  • Ads-free access

    To over 500 millions flashcards

  • Money-back guarantee

    We refund you if you fail your exam.

Over 30 million students worldwide already upgrade their learning with Vaia!

One App. One Place for Learning.

All the tools & learning materials you need for study success - in one app.

Get started for free

Most popular questions from this chapter

A certain typing agency employs 2typists. The average number of errors per article is 3when typed by the first typist and 4.2when typed by the second. If your article is equally likely to be typed by either typist, approximate the probability that it will have no errors.

An urn has n white and m black balls. Balls are randomly withdrawn, without replacement, until a total of k,knwhite balls have been withdrawn. The random variable Xequal to the total number of balls that are withdrawn is said to be a negative hypergeometric random variable.

(a) Explain how such a random variable differs from a negative binomial random variable.

(b) Find P{X=r}.

Hint for (b): In order for X=r to happen, what must be the results of the firstr1 withdrawals?

It is known that diskettes produced by a certain company will be defective with probability .01, independently of one another. The company sells the diskettes in packages of size 10and offers a money-back guarantee that at most1of the diskettes in the package will be defective. The guarantee is that the customer can return the entire package of 10 diskettes if he or she finds more than 1 defective diskette in it. If someone buys 3 packages, what is the probability that he or she will return exactly 1 of them?

Let Xbe a negative binomial random variable with parameters rand p, and let Ybe a binomial random variable with parameters nand p. Show that

P{X>n}=P{Y<r}

Hint: Either one could attempt an analytical proof of the preceding equation, which is equivalent to proving the identity

i=n+1i1r1pr(1p)ir=i=0r1ni×pi(1p)ni

or one could attempt a proof that uses the probabilistic interpretation of these random variables. That is, in the latter case, start by considering a sequence of independent trials having a common probability p of success. Then try to express the events to express the events {X>n}and {Y<r}in terms of the outcomes of this sequence.

Suppose that the random variable Xis equal to the number of hits obtained by a certain baseball player in his next 3at-bats. If P{X=1}=3,P{X=2}=2andP{X=0}=3P{X=3}, find E[X].

See all solutions

Recommended explanations on Math Textbooks

View all explanations

What do you think about this solution?

We value your feedback to improve our textbook solutions.

Study anywhere. Anytime. Across all devices.

Sign-up for free