You read in a book about bridge that the probability that each of the four players is dealt exactly one ace is about $0.11$ This means that (a) in every$100$ bridge deals, each player has one ace exactly $11$ times.

(b) in one million bridge deals, the number of deals on which each player has one ace will be exactly $110,000$

(c) in a very large number of bridge deals, the percent of deals on which each player has one ace will be very close to $11\%$

(d) in a very large number of bridge deals, the average number of aces in a hand will be very close to $0.11$

(e) None of these

$0.11$ is the chance that each of the four players will be dealt precisely one ace. We must find the best solution to the question of what this probability actually signifies.

We can't foresee the outcomes of a chance process, yet they have a regular distribution over a large number of repetitions. According to the law of large numbers, the fraction of times a specific event occurs in numerous repetitions approaches a single number. The likelihood of a chance outcome is its long-run relative frequency. A probability is a number between $0$(never happens) and $1$(happens frequently) (always occurs).

$0$It is assumed that each of the four players will be dealt exactly one ace with a chance of $0.11$This implies that (c) is correct, because the probability is always close to the percent obtained for very large samples. The (a) section is incorrect because having one ace $10$ or $12$times is likewise quite possible. The (b)part is incorrect because $109000$ deals can be obtained with just one ace. The component (d) is incorrect because the proportion is close to 0 and not the average. And (e) is untrue because (c) is correct.