106m-3What mass of phosphorus is needed to dope 1.0 g of silicon so that the number density of conduction electrons in the silicon is increased by a multiply factor of 106from the in pure silicon?

Short Answer

Expert verified

The mass of phosphorous needed to dope 1.0 g of silicon is2.2×10-7g.

Step by step solution

01

The given data

  1. Mass of silicon to be doped, m = 1.0 g
  2. Density of silicon,d=2330kg/m3
  3. Molar mass of silicon,Asillicon=28.09g/mol
  4. Molar mass of phosphorus,Aphosphorus=30.98g/mol
  5. Before doping, the density of conduction electrons in the silicon,n0=1016m-3

After doping, the density of conduction electrons in the silicon,n'0=106nom-3

02

Understanding the concept of doping

Each phosphorus atom contributes one conduction electron. Thus, doping of silicon atoms requires the replacement of phosphorus atoms with silicon atoms. So, first, we calculate the number of phosphorus atoms in terms of the density of silicon atoms. Then, we need to calculate the number of silicon atoms in the sample. Thus, using this value and the above value of density of phosphorus atoms in terms of silicon atoms in a fraction, we can get the exact number of phosphorus atoms that get doped in place of silicon atoms. Using this value, we can calculate the mass required by using the mass of each phosphorus atom.

Formulae:

The number of conduction electrons or number of atoms per unit volume of a material,

natom=dANA,whereNA=6.022×1023/mol (i)

The number of atoms of a material,N=GivenmassMassofoneatomofthematereial (ii)

The mass of an atom of a material, M=A/NA (iii)

The required mass of the material, m = NM (iv)

03

Calculation of the mass of phosphorus

Let, be the amount of conduction electrons of phosphorus atoms to be replace the silicon atoms. Thus, we can write that number of phosphorus atoms per silicon atom as follows:

np+n0=n0'np+106n0-n0n0'=106n0106n0=1061016m-3=1022m-3

Now, the number of silicon atoms can be calculated using equation (i) as follows:

natom=2330kg/m30.0281kg/mol6.022×1023/mol=5×10/m3

Now, the value of phosphorus atoms to replace one silicon atom can be given by the fractional value as follows:

frac=1022m-35×1028/m3=15×106

Now, the mass of a silicon atom can be given using equation (iii) as follows:

m0,si=28.086g/mol6.022×1023/mol=4.66×10-23g

Thus, the number of the silicon atoms in the mass is given using equation (ii) as follows:

NSi=1.0g4.66×10-23g=2.14×1022

Thus, the number of phosphorus atom to dope in1.0 g of silicon can be given as follows:

Np=2.14×1022/5×106=4.29×1015

The required mass of the phosphorus is given by substituting equation (iii) in equation (iv) with the given and calculated data as follows:

m=NA/NA=4.29×101530.9758g/mol6.022×1023/mol=2.2×10-7g

Hence, the mass of phosphorous is 2.2×10-7g.

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Most popular questions from this chapter

The energy gaps Egfor the semiconductors silicon and germanium are, respectively, 1.12 and 0.67eV . Which of the following statements, if any, are true? (a) Both substances have the same number density of charge carriers at room temperature. (b) At room temperature, germanium has a greater number density of charge carriers than silicon. (c) Both substances have a greater number density of conduction electrons than holes. (d) For each substance, the number density of electrons equals that of holes.

If the temperature of a piece of a metal is increased, does the probability of occupancy 0.1 eV above the Fermi level increase, decrease, or remain the same?

A silicon sample is doped with atoms having donor states 0.110eV below the bottom of the conduction band. (The energy gap in silicon is 1.11eV ) If each of these donor states is occupied with a probability of 5.00×10-5at T=300K, (a) is the Fermi level above or below the top of the silicon valence band and (b) how far above or below? (c) What then is the probability that a state at the bottom of the silicon conduction band is occupied?

At 1000K, the fraction of the conduction electrons in a metal that have energies greater than the Fermi energy is equal to the area under the curve of Fig. 41-8bbeyond EF divided by the area under the entire curve. It is difficult to find these areas by direct integration. However, an approximation to this fraction at any temperature T is frac=3kT2EF.

Note that frac = 0 for T = 0 K, just as we would expect. What is this fraction for copper at (a) 300 K and (b) 1000 K? For copper EF=7.0eV. (c) Check your answers by numerical integration using Eq. 41-7.

At T = 300K, how far above the Fermi energy is a state for which the probability of occupation by a conduction electron is 0.10?

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