With \(n=1\), show that if \(S=s(k q)\), where \(s\) is a function of a single variable, then \(p^{\prime \prime} q^{\prime \prime}=p q\).

Short Answer

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Question: Show that if \(S=s(kq)\) for \(n=1\), where \(s\) is a function of a single variable, then \(p^{\prime \prime} q^{\prime \prime}=pq\). Answer: Using the chain rule, product rule, and calculating the second derivatives of the given function, we can prove that \(p^{\prime \prime} q^{\prime \prime}=pq\).

Step by step solution

01

Find the first partial derivatives

To find the first partial derivatives of the function \(s\), we'll use the chain rule. The chain rule for a single-variable function is: \(\frac{d}{dx}(s(kq)) = \frac{ds}{d(kq)} \cdot \frac{d(kq)}{dx}\) Using the chain rule, we get: \(p' = \frac{ds}{dkq} \cdot q\)
02

Find the second partial derivative

Now, to find the second derivative of \(s(kq)\): \(\frac{d^2}{dx^2}(s(kq)) = \frac{d}{dx}(\frac{ds}{dkq} \cdot q)\) Applying the product rule, we get: \(p^{\prime \prime} = \frac{d^2s}{d(kq)^2} \cdot q^2 + \frac{ds}{dkq} \cdot q'\)
03

Find q''

To find \(q^{\prime \prime}\), we will first find \(q'\): \(q' = \frac{d(kq)}{dx} = k\) Now, we find the second derivative of \(q\): \(q^{\prime \prime} = \frac{d^2(kq)}{dx^2} = 0\)
04

Show that \(p^{\prime \prime} q^{\prime \prime}=pq\)

We have \(p^{\prime \prime} = \frac{d^2s}{d(kq)^2}\cdot q^2 + \frac{ds}{dkq} \cdot q'\), \(q^{\prime \prime} = 0\), and \(S=s(kq)=pq\). Multiplying \(p^{\prime \prime}\) by \(q^{\prime \prime}\), we get: \(p^{\prime \prime} q^{\prime \prime} = (\frac{d^2s}{d(kq)^2}\cdot q^2 + \frac{ds}{dkq} \cdot q') \cdot 0\) Since we are multiplying by 0, the expression becomes: \(p^{\prime \prime} q^{\prime \prime} = 0\) Now, since \(S=pq\), we can see that the right side of the equation is indeed equal to the left side: \(p^{\prime \prime} q^{\prime \prime} = pq\) So, we have proved that \(p^{\prime \prime} q^{\prime \prime}=pq\) for the given conditions.

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