Consider a particle of charge q and mass m, free to move in the xyplane in response to an electromagnetic wave propagating in the z direction (Eq. 9.48—might as well set δ=0)).

(a) Ignoring the magnetic force, find the velocity of the particle, as a function of time. (Assume the average velocity is zero.)

(b) Now calculate the resulting magnetic force on the particle.

(c) Show that the (time) average magnetic force is zero.

The problem with this naive model for the pressure of light is that the velocity is 90°out of phase with the fields. For energy to be absorbed there’s got to be some resistance to the motion of the charges. Suppose we include a force of the form ymv, for some damping constant y.

(d) Repeat part (a) (ignore the exponentially damped transient). Repeat part (b), and find the average magnetic force on the particle.

Short Answer

Expert verified

Answer

(a) The velocity of the particle is v=-qEmωsinkz-ωtx.

(b) The resulting magnetic force on the particle is Fm=-q2E02mωcsinkz-ωtcoskz-ωtz^.

(c) It is proved that the (time) average magnetic force is zero.

(d) The velocity of the particle is role="math" localid="1655719609207" v=qE0mω2+y2coskz-ωtx^, the resulting magnetic force on the particle is Fm=qE0mcω2+y2coskz-ω+θcoskz-ωtz^and the (time) average magnetic force is Fmavg=πγq2E02mωcω2+γ2z^.

Step by step solution

01

Expression for the electric field, magnetic field, and frequency:


Write the expression for the electric field.

F(ωtz,xt)=E0cos(kz-)^ …… (1)

Here,tis the time,is the peak electric field,kis the wave number andis the angular frequency.

Write the expression for the magnetic field.

P(ωtz,yt)=1cE0cos(kz-)^ …… (2)

Here,cis the speed of light.

Write the expression for the frequency.

ω=ck …… (3)

02

Determine the velocity of a particle as a function of time:

(a)

Write the expression for an electric force.

F0=qE

Substitute E=E0coskz-ωtx^in the above expression.

F0=qE0coskz-ωtx^F0=maF0=mdvdt

Write the equation for the velocity.

role="math" localid="1655720398237" v=qE0mx^coskz-ωtdt=-qE0mωsinkz-wtx^+C

Here, C=0. Hence, the above equation becomes,

role="math" localid="1655720477833" v=-qE0mωsinkz-ωtx^

Therefore, the velocity of the particle is v=-qE0mωsinkz-ωtx^.

03

Determine the resulting magnetic force on the particle:

(b)

Write the expression for the magnetic force.

Fm=qv×B

Here,qis the charge.

Substitute v=-qE0mωsinkz-ωtx^, and B=1cE0coskz-ωty^ in the above expression.

Fm=q-qE0mωE0csinkz-ωtcoskz-ωtx^×y^Fm=-q2E02mωcsinkz-wtcoskz-ωtz^ …… (4)

Therefore, the resulting magnetic force on the particle is Fm=-q2E02mωcsinkz-wtcoskz-ωtz^.

04

Determine the (time) average magnetic force:

(c)

Integrate equation (4) to find the average magnetic force.

Fmavg=-q2E02mωcz^0Tsinkz-ωtcoskz-ωωtdt

Here, T=2πωis the period.

On further solving, the above equation becomes,

Fmavg=-q2E02mωcz^-12ωsin2kz-ωt0T=q2E02mωcz^-12ωsin2kz-2π-sin2kz=q2E02mωcz^-12ωsin2kz-sin2kz=0

Therefore, it is proved that the (time) average magnetic force is zero.

05

Determine the average magnetic force on the particle:

(d)

Adding in the damping terms, form the required equation.

F=qE-γmvmdvdt=qE0coskz-ωtx^-γmvdvdt+γv=qE0mcoskz-ωtx^ …… (5)

The steady state solution has the following form.

v=Acoskz-ωt+θx^ …… (6)

Find the derivative of the above equation.

dvdt=Aωsinkz-ωt+θx^

Substitute dvdt=Aωsinkz-ωt+θx^and v=Acoskz-ωt+θx^in equation (5).

Aωsinkz-ωt+θx^+γAcoskz-ωt+θx^=qE0mcoskz-ωtx^Aωsinkz-ωt+θx^+γAcoskz-ω+θx^=qE0mcosθcoskz-ωt+θ+sinθsinkz-ωt+θ

Equate the sine terms.

AωqE0msinθ …… (7)

Equate the cosine terms.

AωqE0mcosθ …… (8)

Square and add the equation (7) and (8).

A2ω2+γ2=qE0m2A=qE0mω2+γ2

Substitute A=qE0mω2+γ2in equation (6).

role="math" localid="1655722215918" v=qE0mω2+γ2coskz-ωt+θx^

Hence, the magnetic force will be,

Fm=qE0mcω2+γ2coskz-ωt+θcoskz-ωtz^

Write the equation to calculate the time average.

coskz-ωt+θ=cosθcoskz-ωt-sinθsinkz-ωt.

It is known that the average of coskz-ωtsinkz-ωtis zero, so, the average magnetic force equation becomes,

Fmavg=q2E02mcω2+γ2z^cosθ0Tcos2kz-ωtdt

Substitute cosθ=γω2+γ2in the above equation.

Fmavg=q2E02mcω2+γ2z^γω2+γ2T2Fmavg=q2E02mcω2+γ2z^γω2+γ2πωFmavg=πγq2E02mωcω2+γ2z^

Therefore, the velocity of the particle is v=qE0mω2+γ2coskz-ωt+θcoskz-ωtz^, the resulting magnetic force on the particle is Fm=qE0mcω2+γ2coskz-ωt+θcoskz-ωtz^and the (time) average magnetic force is Fmavg=πγq2E02mωcω2+γ2z^.

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Most popular questions from this chapter

(a) Shallow water is non-dispersive; waves travel at a speed that is proportional to the square root of the depth. In deep water, however, the waves can’t “feel” all the way down to the bottom—they behave as though the depth were proportional to λ. (Actually, the distinction between “shallow” and “deep” itself depends on the wavelength: If the depth is less than λ, the water is “shallow”; if it is substantially greater than λ, the water is “deep.”) Show that the wave velocity of deep water waves is twice the group velocity.

(b) In quantum mechanics, a free particle of mass m traveling in the x direction is described by the wave function

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The "inversion theorem" for Fourier transforms states that

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Use this to determine A(k), in Eq. 9.20, in terms of f(z,0)andf*(z,0)

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Show that the mode TE00 cannot occur in a rectangular wave guide. [Hint: In this case role="math" localid="1657512848808" ωc=k, so Eqs. 9.180 are indeterminate, and you must go back to Eq. 9.179. Show thatrole="math" localid="1657512928835" Bz is a constant, and hence—applying Faraday’s law in integral form to a cross section—thatrole="math" localid="1657513040288" Bz=0 , so this would be a TEM mode.]

a) Derive Eqs. 9.179, and from these obtain Eqs. 9.180.

(b) Put Eq. 9.180 into Maxwell's equations (i) and (ii) to obtain Eq. 9.181. Check that you get the same results using (i) and (iv) of Eq. 9.179.

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