Work out the theory of TM modes for a rectangular wave guide. In particular, find the longitudinal electric field, the cutoff frequencies, and the wave and group velocities. Find the ratio of the lowest TM cutoff frequency to the lowest TE cutoff frequency, for a given wave guide. [Caution: What is the lowest TM mode?]

Short Answer

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The longitudinal electric field is ,Ez=E0sin(mπxa)sin(nπya) the cut-off frequency is ,ωmn=cπ(ma)2+(nb)2 the wave velocity is v=c1(ωmnω)2, the group velocity isvg=c1(ωmnω)2 , and the ratio of the lowest TM cutoff frequency to the lowest TE cutoff frequency for a given waveguide is .ω11ω10=1+(ab)2

Step by step solution

01

Expression for the components of an electric and magnetic field along the z-axis in a rectangular wave:

Write the expression for the components of electric and magnetic fields along the z-axis in a rectangular wave.

[2x2+2y2+(ωc)2-k2]Ez=0[2x2+2y2+(ωc)2-k2]Bz=0

Here, Ezis the longitudinal component of electric field andBz is the longitudinal component of a magnetic field,ω is the frequency of a wave, c is the speed of light, and k is the wavenumber.

02

Determine the longitudinal electric field:

For the TM wave, the value of the longitudinal component of the magnetic field is zero.

Write the boundary conditions at the wall.

E=0B=0

Let, Ez(x,y)=X(x)Y(y).

Here, .X(x)=Asin(kxx)+Bcos(Kxx)

At walls Ez=0, then atx=0and x=a, the value of X and B will be,

X=0B=0

Hence, it is known that:

kx=mπa;m=1,2,3....ky=nπa;n=1,2,3....

So, the longitudinal electric field will be,

Ez=E0sin(mπxa)sin(nπya)

03

Determine the cut off frequency and wave velocity:

ωmn=cπ(ma)2+(nb)2Write the expression for wave number.

Hence, the cut off frequency will be,

k=(ωc)2π2[(ma)2+(nb)2]

Write the expression for the wave velocity,

v=ωk …… (1)

Write the expression for the lowest cut-off frequency (ω11)for modeTM11 .

ω11=cπ(1a)2+(1b)2 …… (2)

Hence, the wavenumber in terms of the cut-off frequency will be,

k=1cω2ωmn2

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Most popular questions from this chapter

(a) Calculate the (time-averaged) energy density of an electromagnetic plane wave in a conducting medium (Eq. 9.138). Show that the magnetic contribution always dominates.

(b) Show that the intensity is(k2μω)E02e-2xz

(a) Shallow water is non-dispersive; waves travel at a speed that is proportional to the square root of the depth. In deep water, however, the waves can’t “feel” all the way down to the bottom—they behave as though the depth were proportional to λ. (Actually, the distinction between “shallow” and “deep” itself depends on the wavelength: If the depth is less than λ, the water is “shallow”; if it is substantially greater than λ, the water is “deep.”) Show that the wave velocity of deep water waves is twice the group velocity.

(b) In quantum mechanics, a free particle of mass m traveling in the x direction is described by the wave function

ψ(x,t)=Aei(px-Et)

wherep is the momentum, and E=p2/2mis the kinetic energy. Calculate the group velocity and the wave velocity. Which one corresponds to the classical speed of the particle? Note that the wave velocity is half the group velocity.

The “inversion theorem” for Fourier transforms states that

ϕ~(z)=-Φ~(k)eikzdkΦ~(k)=12π-ϕ~(z)e-kzdz

Confirm that the energy in theTEmnmode travels at the group velocity. [Hint: Find the time-averaged Poynting vector <S>and the energy density <u>(use Prob. 9.12 if you wish). Integrate over the cross-section of the waveguide to get the energy per unit time and per unit length carried by the wave, and take their ratio.]

The intensity of sunlight hitting the earth is about 1300Wm2 . If sunlight strikes a perfect absorber, what pressure does it exert? How about a perfect reflector? What fraction of atmospheric pressure does this amount to?

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