In Prob. 6.4, you calculated the force on a dipole by "brute force." Here's a more elegant approach. First writeB(r)as a Taylor expansion about the center of the loop:

,B(r)B(r0)+[(rr0)0]B(r0)

Wherer0the position of the dipole and 0is denotes differentiation with respect tor0. Put this into the Lorentz force law (Eq. 5.16) to obtain

.F=IdI×[(r0)B(r0)]

Or, numbering the Cartesian coordinates from 1 to 3:

Fi=Ij,k,l=13εijk{rldlj}[0lBk(r0)],

Where εijk is the Levi-Civita symbol (+1ifijk=123,231, or312; 1ifijk=132, 213, or 321;0otherwise), in terms of which the cross-product can be written (A×B)i=j,k=13εijkAjBk. Use Eq. 1.108 to evaluate the integral. Note that

j=13εijkεljm=δilδkmδimδkl

Whereoil is the Kronecker delta (Prob. 3.52).




Short Answer

Expert verified

The value ofLorentz force on a dipole of vector notation is .F=0(mB(r0))

Step by step solution

01

Write the given data from the question.

Consider the as a Taylor expansion about the center of the loop:

02

Determine the formulaof Lorentz force on a dipole of vector notation.

Write the formula of Lorentz force on a dipole of vector notation.

F=I[0(aB(r0))a(0B(r0))]…… (1)

Here,0 is zero coordinates, B(r0) is Taylor expansion and is current.

03

Step 3:Determine thevalue of Lorentz force on a dipole of vector notation.

Determine the magnetic field is:

B(r)B(r0)+[(rr0)0]B(r0)

Here, 0 means it operates on “zeroed” coordinates. Put this into the Lorentz force law:

F=I(dI×B)=IdI×[B(r0)+[(rr0)0]B(r0)]

In order to allow "zeroed" terms to leave the integral, we integrate over the "un-zeroed" coordinates. The integral of dl over a closed loop is zero, hence we can utilise this knowledge to obtain:

F=IdI×[(r0)B(r0)]

The integrand in the indicial notation is:

εijkdlj(rn0nB0k)

The Einstein summation convention will be used extensively. If an index is used twice in one phrase, it means that the values have been summed (in this case 1,2 and 3). The notation's integral is as follows:

Fi=Iεijkdlj(rn0nB0k)=Iεijk(dljrn)0nB0k

Now let's concentrate on the phrase in brackets. To what does it equate? Well, 1.108 indicates:

(cr)dl=a×c

In indicial notation this is:

ciridln=εnija1cj

We chose rn=δnlrlto obtain the phrase in brackets above, resulting in:

dljrn=δnlrldlj=εjlPalδPn=εjlnal

Note: It doesn't matter what the repeated, or "dummy," indices are termed as long as they don't repeat more than twice and the live, or "liver," indices are the same on both sides of the equal sign.

Now:

Fi=Iεijkεjlnal0nB0k=Iεijkεjlnal0nB0k

We use the εδrule:

εijkεjln=εjikεjln=(δilδknδinδkl)

Now force indices:

Fi=I(δilδknδinδkl)al0nB0k=(ai0kB0kak0iB0k)=I(0i(akB0k)ai0kB0k)

Since ak is a constant (it is not "zeroed" in this situation), it might enter the integral. Returning to vector notation, we get the following:

Determine the Lorentz force on a dipole of vector notation.

Substitute m for Ia into equation (1).

F=I0(aB(r0))=0(mB(r0))

Therefore, the value of Lorentz force on a dipole of vector notation is .

F=0(mB(r0))

Unlock Step-by-Step Solutions & Ace Your Exams!

  • Full Textbook Solutions

    Get detailed explanations and key concepts

  • Unlimited Al creation

    Al flashcards, explanations, exams and more...

  • Ads-free access

    To over 500 millions flashcards

  • Money-back guarantee

    We refund you if you fail your exam.

Over 30 million students worldwide already upgrade their learning with Vaia!

One App. One Place for Learning.

All the tools & learning materials you need for study success - in one app.

Get started for free

Most popular questions from this chapter

Question: Of the following materials, which would you expect to be paramagnetic and which diamagnetic: aluminum, copper, copper chloride (Cucl2), carbon, lead, nitrogen (N2), salt (Nacl ), sodium, sulfur, water? (Actually, copper is slightly diamagnetic; otherwise, they're all what you'd expect.)

How would you go about demagnetizing a permanent magnet (such as the wrench we have been discussing, at point in the hysteresis loop)? That is, how could you restore it to its original state, with M = 0 at / = 0 ?

A sphere of linear magnetic material is placed in an otherwise uniform magnetic field B0. Find the new field inside the sphere.

An infinitely long cylinder, of radius R, carries a "frozen-in" magnetization, parallel to the axis

M=ksz^,

Where is a constant and is the distance from the axis; there is no free current anywhere. Find the magnetic field inside and outside the cylinder by two different methods: (a) As in Sect. 6.2, locate all the bound currents, and calculate the field they produce. (b) Use Ampere's law (in the form of Eq. 6.20) to find, and then get from Eq. 6.18. (Notice that the second method is much faster, and avoids any explicit reference to the bound currents.)

A coaxial cable consists of two very long cylindrical tubes, separated by linear insulating material of magnetic susceptibility χm. A currentI flows down the inner conductor and returns along the outer one; in each case, the current distributes itself uniformly over the surface (Fig. 6.24). Find the magnetic field in the region between the tubes. As a check, calculate the magnetization and the bound currents, and confirm that (together, of course, with the free currents) they generate the correct field.

Figure 6.24

See all solutions

Recommended explanations on Physics Textbooks

View all explanations

What do you think about this solution?

We value your feedback to improve our textbook solutions.

Study anywhere. Anytime. Across all devices.

Sign-up for free