Prove the 'zero component' lemma for an antisymmetric tensor \(T^{\mu v}\) : if any one of its off-diagonal components is zero in all inertial frames, then the entire tensor is zero.

Short Answer

Expert verified
#Answer# Since one off-diagonal component is zero in all inertial frames, it implies that all the other components of the antisymmetric tensor are zero as well, proving the 'zero component' lemma for an antisymmetric tensor.

Step by step solution

01

Write down the properties of an antisymmetric tensor

An antisymmetric tensor \(T^{\mu v}\) has the property that when the indices are swapped, the tensor changes its sign, i.e. \(T^{\mu v} = -T^{v\mu}\).
02

Consider an off-diagonal component being zero

Let's assume that one off-diagonal component of the tensor is zero in all inertial frames. Without loss of generality, let's assume that this component is when \(\mu=1\) and \(v=2\), or \(T^{12}=0\) in all inertial frames. We will use this assumption to show that all the other components must also be zero.
03

Use the antisymmetric property for the non-diagonal components

If the off-diagonal component \(T^{12}\) is zero, then using the antisymmetric property, we get: \(T^{21} = -T^{12} = -0 = 0\) So, both \(T^{12}\) and \(T^{21}\) are zero. Now, let's consider the other possible pairs of indices, \((1,0)\), \((1,3)\), \((2,0)\), \((2,3)\), and \((3,0)\). For each pair, we use the antisymmetric property to show that the corresponding component is zero: - For \(T^{10}\), we have \(T^{01} = -T^{10}\). Since \(T^{12}=0\), we know that the off-diagonal component \(T^{01}\) must also be zero in all inertial frames. Therefore, \(T^{10} = -T^{01} = 0\). - Similarly, for \(T^{13}\), we have \(T^{31} = -T^{13}\) and as \(T^{12}=0\), the off-diagonal component \(T^{31}\) must also be zero in all inertial frames. Therefore, \(T^{13} = -T^{31} = 0\). - Continuing this logic for the other components, we get: - \(T^{20} =-T^{02} = 0\) - \(T^{23} = -T^{32} = 0\) - \(T^{30} = -T^{03} = 0\)
04

Conclude that all off-diagonal components are zero

Since all the off-diagonal components are zero, the entire tensor \(T^{\mu v}\) is antisymmetric with zero off-diagonal components. This means that \(T^{\mu v}\) is zero for all indices \(\mu\) and \(v\), proving the 'zero component' lemma for an antisymmetric tensor.

Unlock Step-by-Step Solutions & Ace Your Exams!

  • Full Textbook Solutions

    Get detailed explanations and key concepts

  • Unlimited Al creation

    Al flashcards, explanations, exams and more...

  • Ads-free access

    To over 500 millions flashcards

  • Money-back guarantee

    We refund you if you fail your exam.

Over 30 million students worldwide already upgrade their learning with Vaia!

One App. One Place for Learning.

All the tools & learning materials you need for study success - in one app.

Get started for free

Most popular questions from this chapter

14\. Prove that the electromagnetic energy tensor satisfies the following two identities: $$ M_{\mu}^{\mu}=0, \quad M_{\sigma}^{\mu} M_{v}^{a}=\left(I \varepsilon_{0} / 2\right)^{2} \delta_{v}^{\mu}, $$ where \(I^{2}=\left(c^{2} b^{2}-e^{2}\right)^{2}+4 c^{2}(e \cdot b)^{2}\). [Hint: It may be easiest to establish the second identity in a particular frame, e.g. if \(I \neq 0\), in one in which e is parallel to b. (We regard the vanishing of e or b as a particular case of this.) For the case \(I=0\), appeal to continuity. \(]\)

In a frame \(S\) there is a uniform electric field \(e=(0, a, 0)\) and a uniform magnetic field \(c \mathbf{b}=(0,0,5 a / 3)\). A particle of rest mass \(m\) and charge \(q\) is released from rest on the \(x\)-axis. What time elapses before it returns to the \(x\)-axis? [Answer: \(74 \pi \mathrm{cm} / 32 \mathrm{aq}\). Hint: look at the situation in a frame in which the electric field vanishes.]

(i) A particle of rest mass \(m\) and charge \(q\) is injected at velocity \(\mathbf{u}\) into a constant pure magnetic field \(\mathbf{b}\) at right angles to the field lines. Use the Lorentz force law \((38.16)\) to establish that the particle will trace out a circle of radius \(m u \gamma(u) / q b\) with period \(2 \pi m \gamma(u) / q b\). [It was the y-factor in the period that necessitated the development of synchrotrons from cyclotrons, at whose energies the \(\gamma\) was still negligible.] (ii) If the particle is injected into the field with the same velocity but at an angle \(\theta \neq \pi / 2\) to the field lines, prove that the path is a helix, of smaller radius, but that the period for one complete cycle is the same as before.

If \((\mathbf{e}, \mathbf{b})\) and \(\left(\mathbf{e}^{\prime}, \mathbf{b}^{\prime}\right)\) are two different electromagnetic fields, prove that \(c^{2} \mathbf{b} \cdot \mathbf{b}^{\prime}-\mathbf{e} \cdot \mathbf{e}^{\prime}\) and \(\mathbf{e} \cdot \mathbf{b}^{\prime}+\mathbf{b} \cdot \mathbf{e}^{\prime}\) are invariants.

Give reasons why in a disordered (i.e. random) distribution of pure radiation (a 'photon gas') the electromagnetic field components will satisfy the following relations on the (time) average: (i) \(e_{1}^{2}=e_{2}^{2}=e_{3}^{2}, \quad b_{1}^{2}=b_{2}^{2}=b_{3}^{2}\), (ii) \(e_{1} e_{2}=e_{2} e_{3}=e_{3} e_{1}=0, \quad b_{1} b_{2}=b_{2} b_{3}=b_{3} b_{1}=0\), (iii) \(e_{2} b_{3}-e_{3} b_{2}=e_{3} b_{1}-e_{1} b_{3}=e_{1} b_{2}-e_{2} b_{1}=0\). Deduce that the only non-zero components of the averaged energy tensor can then be written as \(M^{00}=\sigma_{0}, M^{11}=M^{22}=M^{33}=p\), where \(3 p=\sigma_{n}\).

See all solutions

Recommended explanations on Physics Textbooks

View all explanations

What do you think about this solution?

We value your feedback to improve our textbook solutions.

Study anywhere. Anytime. Across all devices.

Sign-up for free