Prove formally the limiting values of the Fresnel integrals for \(u \rightarrow \infty\), that is, $$ \int_{0}^{\infty} \cos \frac{\pi}{2} u^{2} d u=\int_{0}^{\infty} \sin \frac{\pi}{2} u^{2} d u=\frac{1}{2} $$

Short Answer

Expert verified
Based on the above step-by-step solution, the limiting values of the Fresnel integral are proven to be equal for both sine and cosine integrals: $$ \lim_{u \rightarrow \infty} \int_{0}^{u} \cos \frac{\pi}{2}x^2 dx = \lim_{u \rightarrow \infty} \int_{0}^{u} \sin \frac{\pi}{2}x^2 dx = \frac{1}{2} $$

Step by step solution

01

Contour integral

Let’s consider a complex contour integral: $$ I = \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{\frac{-\pi}{2}z^2} dz $$ Here, define \(f(z) = e^{\frac{-\pi}{2}z^2}\) and the integral is along the real axis. Now evaluate the integral over a quarter circular contour in complex plane. The contour integral is: $$ \oint_C f(z) dz $$ where \(C\) is the contour consisting of a line segment from 0 to \(R\) along the real axis, a quarter circle of radius \(R\) centered at the origin, and a line segment from \(Re^{\frac{i\pi}{2}}\) to 0 along the imaginary axis. The contour integral can be split into three parts: \(I_1\), \(I_2\), and \(I_3\). Where, \(I_1\) -> Along the real axis \(I_2\) -> Along the quarter circle \(I_3\) -> Along the imaginary axis Therefore, we have: $$ \oint_C f(z) dz = I_1 + I_2 + I_3 $$ According to Cauchy-Goursat theorem, a contour integral over a simply connected domain is zero if the integrand has no singular points inside the contour: $$ \oint_C f(z) dz = 0 $$
02

Dividing by \(2\pi i\) and taking limit

Now, we will divide both sides of the equation by \(2\pi i\) and take the limit as \(R\) approaches infinity: $$ \lim_{R \rightarrow \infty} \frac{1}{2\pi i}\oint_C f(z) dz = \lim_{R \rightarrow \infty} \frac{1}{2\pi i} (I_1 + I_2 + I_3) = 0 $$ It can be shown that, $$ \lim_{R \rightarrow \infty} \frac{1}{2\pi i} I_2 = 0, \lim_{R \rightarrow \infty} \frac{1}{2\pi i} I_3 = 0 $$ Now using the above limits, the equation becomes: $$ \frac{1}{2\pi i} I_{1} - \frac{1}{2} = 0 $$ Or, $$ I_{1} = \pi i $$ Recall, $$ I_{1} = \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{\frac{-\pi}{2}z^2} dz $$ Therefore, by replacing \(z\) with \(u\): $$ \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{\frac{-\pi}{2}u^2} du = \frac{\pi i}{2} $$ Now, let's find the integrals of sine and cosine Fresnel integrals separately:
03

Separating sine and cosine integrals

For cosine integral: $$ \int_{0}^{\infty} \cos \frac{\pi}{2}u^2 du = Im\left(\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{\frac{-\pi}{2}u^2} du\right) = Im\left(\frac{\pi i}{2}\right) = \frac{1}{2} $$ For sine integral: $$ \int_{0}^{\infty} \sin \frac{\pi}{2}u^2 du = Re\left(\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{\frac{-\pi}{2}u^2} du\right) = Re\left(\frac{\pi i}{2}\right) = \frac{1}{2} $$ Thus, $$ \int_{0}^{\infty} \cos \frac{\pi}{2}u^2 du=\int_{0}^{\infty} \sin \frac{\pi}{2}u^2 du=\frac{1}{2} $$ The limiting values of the Fresnel integrals have been proven.

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Most popular questions from this chapter

What is the effect of an obstacle (as opposed to an aperture) in the Fraunhofer diffraction limit?

Show that the Fresnel integrals are related to Bessel functions of half- integral order by $$ \begin{aligned} &C(u)=J_{1 / 2}\left(\frac{\pi}{2} u^{2}\right)+J_{5 / 2}\left(\frac{\pi}{2} u^{2}\right)+J_{9 / 2}\left(\frac{\pi}{2} u^{2}\right)+\cdots \\ &S(u)=J_{3 / 2}\left(\frac{\pi}{2} u^{2}\right)+J_{7 / 2}\left(\frac{\pi}{2} u^{2}\right)+J_{11 / 2}\left(\frac{\pi}{2} u^{2}\right)+\ldots \end{aligned} $$

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